If a person is in debt that is equal to all the wealth that he has in his possession, or more than that, is he required to pay zakaah on the money that he does have, if one year has passed since he acquired it?
If a person is in debt that is equal to all the wealth that he has in his possession, or more than that, is he required to pay zakaah on the money that he does have, if one year has passed since he acquired it?